Vocal Technique

Choral tuning

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thallo

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Opening post by thallo

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These days I am in Turin singing with a choir; on Thursday and Friday we will be performing Mahler's Second Symphony with the RAI Symphony Orchestra. The choir in question is called Coro Maghini and is conducted by

M° Chiavazza, a conductor with polyphonic training, one of those who pays extremely close attention to the choir's intonation.

I therefore wanted to take this opportunity (and the free time I have these days) to introduce this topic, which is little known but very important (and very "fashionable"). It is a vast subject, so I will try one of a thousand possible approaches. If you are interested, I will delve deeper over time.

A series of in-tune people do not necessarily form an in-tune choir.

What is an in-tune choir? It is a choir that performs, above all, in-tune chords (or harmonic overlaps). And what, in choral practice, is an in-tune chord? It is a chord whose degree of consonance is as high as possible.

What I have written may seem trivial or it may seem inconceivable. Trivial, because I have spoken about nothing. Inconceivable, because I introduced the topic of consonance as if it were the sole element of harmonic theory. In reality, it is not, but it is the most important element of a choir's intonation.

Consonance is not just a concept of musical theory; it is above all a concept of acoustic physics. I have learned to define it as the quality of a harmonic overlap expressible with a fraction of integers, where the lower these numbers are, the higher the degree (of consonance). In simple terms, the highest possible consonance is a unison, which is expressed by the number 1. The second most consonant harmonic overlap is the octave. Two voices singing an octave apart form a harmonic overlap expressible with the fraction 2/1. These are two very low integers, the lowest possible after 1. Going on like this, we can express the entire series of intervals (semitone, tone, minor third, major third, etc.) with fractions. And we will arrive at an intonation prospect very similar to the famous natural Pythagorean system.

Taken this way, the issue seems merely mathematical. In reality, the practical consequences are gigantic.

Let's take two choirs. One sings a hollow fifth, like C-G, and sings it by tuning perfectly to the perfect fifth 3/2. The other choir, however, does not make a perfect just fifth, but muddies the intonation a bit and sings, I don't know, a fifth of 300/197. What difference will you hear? Probably none :-) furthermore, it is very likely that the "out-of-tune" choir will appear richer, more complex to you, and this is because when we speak in abstract terms of intonation, we are referring almost to MIDI files, to sine waves, i.e., to sound sources that emit A SINGLE FREQUENCY. The voice does not emit a single frequency; it is a mess of different things, therefore a chord will never be perfectly perfect.

However, when the difference between the two choirs becomes more significant, then first of all one thing happens: the out-of-tune choir sings more quietly.

The first and least considered consequence of in-tune polyphony is VOLUME. Because two consonant notes correspond to two consonant waves, and when two waves are consonant, they come into phase and into RESONANCE. That is, they amplify each other.

This mechanism is not new to musical knowledge. In reality, it is one of the best-known vocal mechanisms of all time. When the chest C was not yet known, nor the "lyrical" emission technique and all the other things discussed in opera houses, European cathedrals were built to amplify perfectly tuned perfect triads that were incredibly resonant. I have sung in churches, even with quite large choirs, and I assure you that it is tremendously difficult to make yourself heard. Everything reverberates and everything sounds terrible. Then a little English choir of 20 people comes along and brings the walls down... this is possible precisely because ancient music IS WRITTEN to be insanely in-tune.

I will stop here for now. Tell me if the topic interests you ;-)

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Reply 2 by CromaDiBrera

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Personally, I am interested because, during this period, thanks to a virtual instrument (organ) that allows me to choose between different historical temperaments, I am trying to understand how these have influenced "pre-equal temperament" composition in its melodic and harmonic solutions.

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Reply 3 by Frank

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The topic is interesting Thallo and personally speaking I am dedicated (as a composer) to choral music. In my opinion, the most difficult thing, especially when writing a cappella, is respecting the intonation needs of the choir without giving up, for example, one's own harmonic signature which is not necessarily tonal and which can more easily include or "allude" to some of the intonation logics described by Thallo; so, how can one allow oneself, for example, to insert a cluster into one's own piece? Assuming that using them is more or less still current. For me, it is only a hyperbole in this case.

At this point, it is actually interesting that Thallo mentioned ancient music, which, although not tonal, even earlier in chronological order, precisely due to the effect of what Thallo described, used and abused the possibilities of choral intonation leading to remarkable results.

Now Thallo will hate me because I have changed the point of view of the discussion... in the sense that choirs might not be in tune because of what is written in the score and not just because of their incapacity (or rather, that of their conductor). For me, in all cases, it is a problem for the conductor... and referring to composition, one cannot perform just anything without taking into account the rubbish that gets written (even in a tonal context, alas).

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Reply 4 by CromaDiBrera

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I don't know if it might be useful on the sidelines of this discussion, but I was reading this study here where the difficulties of introducing the equal temperament system in Frescobaldi's Rome are recounted. I also find it amusing.

http://www.academia.edu/5135051/Il_temperamento_equabile_nel_periodo_frescobaldiano

http://www.academia.edu/5135051/Il_temperamento_equabile_nel_periodo_frescobaldiano

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Reply 5 by Bianca

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All of this makes me think that some time ago I had a few theoretical "little problems" specifically with the mutation stops of the organ. Personally, sometimes I find it annoying to listen to pieces written for a certain instrument and performed on the organ. In my opinion, certain instruments can afford certain non-consonances and others cannot. I had also started analyzing the spectrum of a note emitted by different instruments, finding that each has a series of overtones (octave 1/2, fifth 1/3, etc.) that are different and that not all are "pure," meaning true harmonics.

What I have never done is analyze the spectrum of a tenor, let alone a choir. This would interest me.

A gut feeling would lead me to say that the human voice produces different overtones from individual to individual (this obviously also happens in artificial instruments of the same type, but being artificial they are made to be more similar to one another), and this could greatly influence the "consonance" in a choir. But I am only making suppositions and I hope that Thallo will clarify the matter.

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Reply 8 by thallo

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Frank wrote:

The topic is interesting, Thallo, and personally speaking, I am dedicated (as a composer) to choral music. In my opinion, the most difficult thing, especially when writing a cappella, is respecting the intonation needs of the choir without giving up, for example, one's own harmonic signature, which is not necessarily tonal and can more easily include or "allude" to some of the intonation logics described by Thallo; so how can one allow oneself, for example, to insert a cluster into one's own piece? Assuming that using them is more or less still current. For me, it is merely a hyperbole in this case.

At this point, it is indeed interesting that Thallo mentioned ancient music, which, although not tonal, even earlier in chronological order—precisely due to the effect of what Thallo described—used and abused the possibilities of choral intonation, leading to remarkable results.

Now Thallo will hate me because I have changed the point of view of the discussion... in the sense that choirs might not be in tune because of what is written in the score and not just due to their incapacity (or rather, that of their conductor). For me, in all cases, it is a problem for the conductor... and referring to composition, one cannot perform just anything without taking into account the rubbish that gets written (even in a tonal context, alas).

Choral composition is a fine point of view. I have always been convinced that the more things are written on a score, the better, so that conductors with good intentions but poor knowledge can still understand what to do.

Besides, composers themselves often do not fully understand the acoustic "implications" of what they write. As a singer, I often wonder what the composer's technical idea is, and this is because as a singer, I can only work in a technical way. I am an instrument that recreates itself every time, and I would like the composer to tell me every time what to do, how to do it, or what PRECISE result I should aim for.

But that is truly another discussion.

Bianca wrote:

All this makes me think that a while ago I had some theoretical "little problems" specifically with the mutation stops of the organ. Personally, sometimes I feel discomfort listening to pieces written for a certain instrument and performed on the organ. In my opinion, certain instruments can afford certain non-consonances and others cannot. I even started analyzing the spectrum of a note emitted by different instruments, finding that each has a series of overtones (octave 1/2, fifth 1/3, etc.) that are different and that not all are "pure," i.e., true harmonics.

What I have never done is analyze the spectrum of a tenor, let alone a choir. This would interest me.

By instinct, I would say that the human voice produces different overtones from individual to individual (this obviously also happens in artificial instruments of the same type, but being artificial they are made more similar to one another), and this could greatly influence the "consonance" in a choir. But I am only making suppositions and I hope Thallo will clarify the matter.

Spectral analysis fell into musical analysis quite a while ago, but its use is still very sectoral.

What should be understood is that the history of harmony and composition largely resolves the analytical problems related to harmonic spectra, the theory of consonance and dissonance on its own. That is, to understand what Monteverdi's chords mean, Zarlino "suffices." This is the initial point I was making: singing consonances from an acoustic point of view, based on the "nature" of harmony as understood by the theorists of the period of that composition. This is true musical philology, i.e., historically informed interpretations. And by history, one does not mean the birth and death dates of a composer, but what was the correct fifth according to their period, how wide certain intervals had to be for them, how different A#s could be compared to B-flats, etc...

The real problems arrive precisely "after" vocal polyphony, when polyphony and harmonic theory resign themselves to being used for fixed-pitch instruments, with all the various temperaments and intonation models we know. A choir conductor, or an analyst, or a choral music composer, must ask themselves a heavy question: does chorality in the era of the tempered system follow the old rules or follow new ones, copying the instruments? No, because the harmonic and acoustic problems of the 1800s are no longer the problems of voices, and in fact, they are no longer even the problems of composers, who disregard the old concepts of consonance. In these days of rehearsals on Mahler, this is a very heavy question, one that is truly felt. Fortunately, the"}

the sonority of choirs tends to adapt to the sonority of orchestras, and an orchestra like a Mahlerian one, full of brass and percussion, slides very easily towards a great natural intonation. The harmonics are so numerous that they all go out of tune together :-)

That being said, the number and nature of the overtones emitted by a sung voice change depending on the technique with which that voice changes. This technique should also be adequate to the type of music. As I was saying before, in a repertoire of ancient sacred polyphony, where consonance has a very profound meaning, the technique should aim to make a high number of harmonic partials intelligible. And in plain terms, this happens by making the fundamental very precise, completely eliminating vibrato, trying to make all the voices of the choir resonate and exploiting everyone's resonance cavities. It is a very difficult job, especially for Italians, who see singing as a solo "sport," and who consider dark and vibrated voices to be rich and full of harmonics. This is true for soloists, but it is false for choristers. In a choir, one does not just look for harmonics, one looks for natural harmonics. And the waves with more natural harmonics are the waves closest to sinusoidal ones, i.e., pure, in-tune, precise waves.

CromaDiBrera wrote:

What Thallo writes is always "too interesting"...!

but stop it...

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Reply 9 by thallo

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besides, yesterday the symphony was a huge success :-) go watch me in the choir on the Rai5 streaming

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Reply 10 by Tenore

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thallo wrote:

also, yesterday the symphony was a huge success :-) go watch me in the choir on the Rai5 streaming

Could you provide a link

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Reply 11 by thallo

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http://www.rai.tv/dl/replaytv/replaytv.html?day=2014-03-13&ch=31&v=338501&vd=2014-03-13&vc=31#day=2014-03-13&ch=31&v=338501&vd=2014-03-13&vc=31

anyway, I wanted to clarify one thing regarding a previous message.

I threw out a hypothetical and probably non-existent "ratio" 300/197 ... I don't remember all the main interval relationships by memory, let alone the very distant ones. But almost certainly this one doesn't exist :-) and so I will also take the opportunity to explain the simple criterion used to mark intervals.

Absolute pitch is indicated in Hertz, the unit of measurement for frequency. Relative pitches, the intervals, can also be indicated in Hertz, obviously, but since the concept of an interval is "modulatable," it makes sense to speak about it in an even more general way, referring to the relationships between any tonic and the other note that frames the interval. In natural intonations, as I was saying, very consonant notes are prioritized, and therefore the numbers of the fractions (ratios) that indicate the intervals are always very small. But what are these numbers? They indicate the natural harmonic in which the unison occurs between the two sounds.

That is... if we take the ratio 2:1 (generally a colon is used when indicating a leap and a slash when indicating harmonic overlap), which indicates the octave, so hypothetically C1 and C2, we know that the second harmonic of C2 creates a unison with the first harmonic of C2. These "ordinals" of the harmonics also include the fundamental note, so the second harmonic of C1 is C2 and the first harmonic of C2 is C2. The fifth C1 - G1 is indicated as 3/2 because the third harmonic of C1 (G2) creates a unison with the second harmonic of G1 (G2). And so on: the fourth C1-F1 is indicated as 4/3, the major third C1-E1 as 5/4, the minor seventh C1-Bb1 as 7/4 or 7/5, the major second C1-D1 as 9/8, the minor third C1-Eb1 as 6/5 etc. etc.

Far from being fixed and immutable things, these consonance relationships have undergone continuous changes. Especially due to the manner in which they were "discovered" and adopted. For example, the minor seventh 7/4, although it is a very consonant interval, has never been considered a "natural" seventh. Simply because in the cyclic system of "temperament" of the scale, i.e., in that very coherent calculation from which the intervals of the natural scale are derived, it does not emerge. It exists, everyone knows of its existence, but historically it is little used. This is a mathematical-logical problem that we could define as undecidability—the fact, that is, that there are true propositions to which it is almost impossible to arrive.

So, there are many possible acoustic consonances, but our musical instruments do not always emit them.

The voice, being an instrument with totally free intonation, can potentially emit every existing consonance, both in melodic and harmonic order.

http://www.rai.tv/dl/replaytv/replaytv.html?day=2014-03-13&ch=31&v=338501&vd=2014-03-13&vc=31#day=2014-03-13&ch=31&v=338501&vd=2014-03-13&vc=31
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