Harmony and counterpoint

Harmonization of a bass line (V-VII movement)

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Antongiulio

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Opening post by Antongiulio

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Hello, I am new to the forum and I take this opportunity to greet everyone and thank you in advance for the help.

I am harmonizing a series of basses (in this case J. Napoli 13), but when I face a succession of basses V-VII it puts me in difficulty.

Obviously, I know that VII is the leading tone of the new key, so I would harmonize it as VII6 and that doubling the leading tone is impossible to do; hence my question:
How do I harmonize the V? Is it possible to make the leading tone heard by harmonizing this degree with V7 and then moving it in the subsequent movement (where it would be VII6)?

It is quite a beginner question, I know, and I probably already know that the answer is yes, but I wanted to ask you for confirmation anyway and if any text mentioned the change of state of the chords!

Thanks again

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Reply 2 by antares86

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Hi and welcome, I don't have Napoli at hand right now, could you tell me which chapter 13 is under? Anyway, I would simply give V and V56 or just V6 on the second [part], treating the bass as if it were just a melodic movement, if there are no progressions involved.

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Reply 3 by Antongiulio

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Hi, thank you very much for the answer, it is the chapter on the modulating bass without alterations. So, do I make the leading tone of the key heard in the first chord and then change state in the second by making that leading tone disappear and giving it to the given bass? Is it possible not to resolve it when changing state? Let's just say that in my initial question I beat around the bush to express this concept

If it can help, I will write the notes of the two offending measures. They are all quarter notes: F# B D#/ E G B C; I harmonized them as IV II ? V6 (sometimes I have seen VII6 written, but the substance is the same) / I I6 V VI

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Reply 4 by pianothor

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If the harmonic function does not change, then it is enough to move the leading tone to another voice; 'changes state'—I don't know what that means. In practice, you could simply do V - V6 on B and D# simply by moving the leading tone to the bass. If the exercise declares itself modulating and therefore wants to work on the principle of tonality and any temporary or permanent modulations... you could also make F# the dominant of the dominant.

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Reply 5 by Antongiulio

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Ok thanks, it was just as I imagined! Thanks for the tip about the F# but for now I'm afraid of creating some false relations since the previous note is an A natural which I harmonized as the IV of Em

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Reply 6 by Frank

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The most effective progression is VII V and not the reverse; they are two cadences of different scope. I read that it is indeed suggested to treat it as a single fifth. Can't you post the passage?

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Reply 7 by antares86

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Frank would be the most logical thing to consider as a single fifth given that I imagine it is also quite rapid as a passage...

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Reply 8 by Frank

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Of course Antares, it's a classic.

Let's say that from a functional point of view, if one decides to use 2 cadential chords... VII V is better than the reverse (just as IV II is better, and vice versa, for pre-cadential chords).

Expanding the dominant chord using 2 different inversions works well, although it creates a stronger pull towards the tonic or a deception if one uses B G C/A in the bass instead of G B C (in C major). These are choices made to dose the tension, for example in relation to the form (a discourse obviously valid for a piece for piano more so than for a bass ... which is already given)

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Reply 10 by paologiuliani

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antares86 wrote:

On 15/1/2018 at 03:40, antares86 said:

Well, nothing to object to

Considering the bass, I would say there are no doubts: the bass plays a series of 3rds that extend the individual chords: F# (II7) - B D# (V7) - E G (I). It goes without saying that when the bass takes the next 3rd, you must do a part exchange

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