Good morning,
i have a question regarding the issue of downweight and upweight on a grand piano that I am testing these days. I am referring to a high-quality instrument in excellent general condition, a Steinway D grand piano from the early '60s, Hamburg made, whose hammer action (original Steinway, I am certain) and strings have been replaced.
The fine regulation perhaps still needs to be checked a bit, but the "vital" parameters are in order: hammer dip 47 mm, key dip 1 cm, springs correctly calibrated, escapement fairly well-set. There remains a non-optimal ratio between the descent and ascent of the key; approximately 55 grams going down and 35 going up. It is a bit heavier than standard, but that is not the point; the fact is that a correct ratio to me would be 50 going down and 22-23 going up.
The result is that a slightly higher "force" than normal is required to keep the keys pressed during legato, and the playing sensation is not very natural because in rapid passages one feels a certain tendency of the keys to "push back" against the fingers.
Even if the weight were brought down to 50 gr. (5 less), we would have a return of 30: still 5 less, but still not a perfect ratio.
Assuming that the ratio is 2 to 1 (it isn't, but I am doing so to simplify), in theory, by bringing the downweight to 40 gr, I would have 20 going up and we "would be" set. Obviously this is only theoretical, as the piano would be too light and, above all, "padded" with lead on this side of the fulcrum: practically unplayable.
It is probably not even a problem of friction: if there were excess friction, we would have even more weight going down and less weight on the return due to the "braking" effect.
Given that—I truly believe—the solution is not to introduce friction, my questions are two:
1) The most important one: what could cause such a result given that the parts are original?
2) Bringing the downweight to 50 gr., with the consequent upweight of 30, would it improve the playability of the instrument a bit, or would it merely bring the ratio closer to the "theoretical correct" one?
I apologize for the length of the post and thank whoever wishes to offer their opinion.
c