Classical Music

Two Pianos

9 replies 1,756 views

Started by

CromaDiBrera

Member

Member

Opening post by CromaDiBrera

Posts
558
City
Roma

I have a curiosity, for some time now: in performances for two pianos (in the classical repertoire), are two instruments that are as similar as possible usually used, or instead, ones with different timbral characteristics from each other?

Member

Reply 2 by Lucas

Posts
71

Timbral characteristics in what sense... brands?

I am asking because, in my opinion, the availability of the theater is what matters most

Member

Reply 3 by Silbermann

Posts
109
City
MI

I had never considered the issue, drawing a parallel with the organ field, where 2 organs from the same church were even built in a mirror image, so I think the difference may lie in the construction of the piece... although it is true that recordings, given the same organ, can be different.

Member

Reply 4 by CromaDiBrera

Posts
558
City
Roma
Lucas wrote:

Tonal characteristics in what sense... brands?

Also; tonal characteristics in general.

Lucas wrote:

I am asking because in my opinion, the availability of the theater dictates it

I meant regardless of contingent limitations, naturally.

Member

Reply 5 by Eagle

Posts
264
CromaDiBrera wrote:

regardless of contingent limitations, naturally.

It is better if the two timbres are distinguishable; it would certainly be an asset ... provided that the composition is well-written, as defects in this case would become more evident

Reply 6 by Pianoaccordatore

Due to the stiffness of the strings, a piano with short strings has a different dissonance compared to a piano with longer strings.

When two pianos are used together in a concert, they should have the same tuning scale (same brand and model), tuning each piano separately.

Then, with the help of an assistant, it is useful to compare the two pianos one note at a time, correcting the differences.

Member

Reply 7 by CromaDiBrera

Posts
558
City
Roma
Pianoaccordatore wrote:

Then with the help of an assistant, it is useful to compare the 2 pianos one note at a time, correcting the differences.

Thank you, more or less that is what I was interested in: so, if I understood correctly, the rule is to try to make the sound homogeneous between the two instruments (from which, evidently, it follows that it is desirable to have two identical models).

Too bad, because the idea of being able to exploit (I am referring to composition) register differences seemed interesting to me...

Member

Reply 8 by Valchiria

Posts
220
City
-

As per the question, regarding the classical repertoire, I agree with Pianoaccordatore's answer, however

CromaDiBrera wrote:

Too bad, because the idea of being able to exploit (I am referring to composition) differences in register seemed interesting to me...

this sentence of yours falls outside the classical scope; today you can do whatever you want and even mix temperaments... so I think Eagle is also partly right

Member

Reply 9 by Carlos

Posts
759
CromaDiBrera wrote:

I have a curiosity that has been on my mind for a while: in performances for two pianos (in the classical repertoire), are instruments that are as similar as possible usually used, or rather, instruments with different timbral characteristics from one another?

Normally, it is sought to use—as you have been told—instruments that are very similar, regardless of the reason why two pianos are being used. I will give you a couple of examples to clarify what I mean.

Brahms, before writing them for orchestra, wrote the Variations on a Theme by Haydn for two pianos. The reason he used two was purely practical: a single pianist could not do everything he had in mind; in this case, it is almost mandatory that there be not only identity (or near-identity) between the two instruments, but also as much uniformity of touch as possible between the two pianists.

Another example could be Mozart's Concerto for Two Pianos K 365 in E-flat major (which I personally consider one of WAM's peaks). The use of the two instruments here logically has a different reason: they are two soloists, it is a "double concerto," but the two instruments are made to play literally together, and the games of imitation between them are sometimes used to confuse the listener.

I believe that in both cases it is fundamental for the pianos to have at least a very similar timbral result, also because it must be said that it is extremely difficult for two pianos to sound perfectly together: the percussion of the hammer is so precise that one often and willingly perceives a slight phase shift between the two instruments. If they also have a different timbre, it's over.

I will give one last example, since we are at it, and move to our own time, or almost. Steve Reich, Six Pianos (1973). I am putting an excerpt here, in case you do not know it. In this piece, it is even vital that the pianos (six, in this case) sound the same way, because here ideas must be confused, speaking at least of "where does what come from?" Among other things, a stupendous piece; I hope you like it.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=edKE10Yz_zs

Log in to participate