micamahler wrote:Whereas instead, who knows why, the leading tone one day, instead of resolving, will prefer to stay there and not resolve by rising a semitone, it won't be acceptable to some, but yes to others; anyway, that is what it will do, and then the rule "the leading tone must resolve to the tonic" will be replaced by "often the leading tone resolves to the tonic"! And then one will have to, as you were saying, find small theories that work for every example, or find a general one that contains quite a few exceptions.
Reflection. Let's take a piece of music that from the very first bars begins to characterize itself in an aesthetic where the leading tone doesn't "stay there" but descends... can you continue the example?
What do I mean? That on a single element the reasoning is very clear, but it implies the evolutionary variable of a language which today, in its rules, provides that the leading tone descends (or sometimes even rises), then its descent is delayed, and finally it stays there... but the context is made of many things and is "frozen" in that moment of life of a certain language... made of harmony, flourish, orchestration, instrumentation, motion of parts, etc.
Let's pretend that all the elements used in a piece are extremely classical (I mean classicism)... because then at a certain point something must arrive that doesn't quite fit with the initial syntactic premises? (I mean linguistically speaking, because the descending leading tone is a grammatical rule.... a set of rules can frame a style/an aesthetic. In the general framework, in how a composition becomes characterized). Clearly, an incongruity is found: of taste and aesthetics.
Now, this always holds when the language is shared and it always works when we speak of traditional works and particularly tonal ones.
Today the codes are open; it becomes difficult to apply this approach... essentially since everyone has their own code, everyone can do as they please, everyone plays their own language (let's hope someone understands them) and at most one can say I like it/I don't like it.
Even technical criticism in "ad personam" contexts is inapplicable, because someone will always respond that in their own language that technical behavior is provided for.
But there is always a "but"; assuming that this belief can be more or less shared (though many truly believe it), the problem I generally encounter is that if one starts making stylistic references, such a number of incongruities are created to the point that it becomes inevitable to assert one's own stylistic signature and therefore fall into the "ad personam" where everything is "permissible."
Thus, those who have a signature (see Xenakis, Tetras? Stockhausen Mantra? Do we want to talk about Varese's techniques?) can afford to overturn everything and change the rules... those who do not have a signature risk becoming incoherent.
The most difficult thing from my point of view, which is perhaps what triggered the initial discussion, is decontextualizing the starting material. The limit between stylistic reference and decontextualization is very thin. Who can establish this? The answer can also be simple: scores are always very clear about this. If one stays too much within a stylization (the time necessary to characterize a piece in a certain aesthetic)... automatically what follows is subject to a certain type of technical criticism... because it is outside the "ad personam," outside the experiment... outside the attempt to demonstrate anything musical/extramusical (unless these same elements fall within the very aesthetics declared... but then there would be no decontextualization).
(U)nfortunately in music, what arrives is what shows itself and not what is demonstrated, because eventually the demonstration itself is a "what" of music."}